Management of Natural Resources

Question 1

Question: Which one of the following is an example of biotic component of environment?

1.	wind
2.	water
3.	vegetation
4.	temperature

Answer: 3

Question 2

Question: Which of the following is a non renewable resource?

1.	solar Energy
2.	hydrocarbon fuel
3.	flora and fauna
4.	nuclear power

Answer: 2

Question 3

Question: Sanctuaries are established to_______.

1.	develop commercial tree plantation
2.	conduct ecotourism on wildlife
3.	protect animals
4.	conduct research on Biodiversity

Answer: 3

Question 4

Question: Global warming has resulted due to

1.	increased emissions of fine particulates from automobiles
2.	increased emissions of CO2 from automobiles
3.	Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen
4.	lack of rainfall worldwide

Answer: 2

Question 5

Question: The main cause of mismanagement of natural resources is because of _________.

1.	a large increase in population
2.	the conversion of land for food crops
3.	a great demand for petroleum
4.	Individuals not using the three R's

Answer: 1

Question 6

Question: Which statement is the most accurate?

1.	60% of the earth's land surface is now used to grow crops and graze animals.
2.	Ganga and Yamuna rivers are covered under the Ganga Action Plan-I and II.
3.	9.73% of the total global supply of water is available for human consumption.
4.	The 14 major river systems are a part of the Ganga action plan.

Answer: 2

Question 7

Question: The main source of water in India is____________.

1.	rain water
2.	ground water
3.	surface water
4.	sea water

Answer: 1

Question 8

Question: Floods are caused by_______.

1.	afforestation
2.	cutting the forests
3.	tilling the land
4.	constructing mega dams

Answer: 2

 

Our Environment

Question 1

Question: A natural phenomenon that becomes harmful due to pollution is _____________.

1.	global warming
2.	ecological balance
3.	greenhouse effect
4.	desertification

Answer: 3

Question 2

Question: The pollutant responsible for ozone holes is ____________.

1.	CO2
2.	SO2
3.	CO
4.	CFC

Answer: 4

Question 3

Question: One of the best solutions to get rid of non-biodegradable wastes is _________________.

1.	burning
2.	dumping
3.	burying
4.	recycling

Answer: 4

Question 4

Question: Animal dung is _________________ waste.

1.	biodegradable
2.	non-biodegradable
3.	hazardous
4.	toxic

Answer: 1

Question 5

Question: Which of the following is biodegradable?

1.	iron nails
2.	plastic mugs
3.	leather belts
4.	silver foil

Answer: 3

Question 6

Question: Which of the following is non-biodegradable?

1.	animal bones
2.	nylon
3.	tea leaves
4.	wool

Answer: 2

Question 7

Question: Name one non-biodegradable waste which may pollute the earth to dangerous levels of toxicity, if not handled properly.

1.	DDT
2.	CFC
3.	Radioactive substances
4.	PAN

Answer: 3

Question 8

Question: In a lake polluted with pesticides, which one of the following will contain the maximum amount of pesticides?

1.	small fish
2.	microscopic animals
3.	big fish
4.	water birds

Answer: 4

Question 9

Question: Name the substance whose accumulation in pelicans of Lake Michigan led to the formation of thin shells of their eggs.

1.	CFC
2.	PAN
3.	DDT
4.	PAC

Answer: 3

Question 10

Question: Name the process in which a harmful chemical enters the food chain and gets concentrated at each level in the food chain.

1.	concentration
2.	biomagnification
3.	expansion
4.	pollution

Answer: 2

Human eye and colourful world

Question 1

Question: The change in focal length of an eye lens to focus the image of objects at varying distances is done by the action of ________.

1.	pupil
2.	ciliary muscles
3.	retina
4.	blind spot

Answer: 2

Question 2

Question: Far point of a normal eye is situated at _________.

1.	25 cm
2.	infinity
3.	50 cm
4.	400 cm

Answer: 2

Question 3

Question: A long-sighted person cannot see objects nearer to his eye than 50 cm. To enable him to read a book 25 cm away, he should use spectacle lenses whose power in dioptres is ____.

1.	-6
2.	-4
3.	-2
4.	+ 4

Answer: 4

Question 4

Question: The process by which a beam of white light splits into its constituent colours is known as _________.

1.	reflection
2.	dispersion
3.	divergence
4.	convergence

Answer: 2

Question 5

Question: The band of colours obtained due to dispersion is known as ______________.

1.	spectrum
2.	rainbow
3.	image
4.	mirage

Answer:

Question 6

Question: Power of a lens is expressed in

1.	dioptre
2.	cm
3.	metre
4.	millimetre

Answer: 1

Question 7

Question: 1 D is the power of a lens of focal length ______ cm.

1.	100
2.	10
3.	1/100
4.	1/10

Answer: 1

Question 8

Question: Hypermetropia is rectified by using

1.	convex lens
2.	concave lens
3.	cylindrical lens
4.	progressive lens

Answer: 1

Question 9

Question: Reciprocal of focal length in metres is known as the ______ of a lens.

1.	focus
2.	power
3.	power of accommodation
4.	far point

Answer: 2

Question 10

Question: The power of a convex lens of focal length 50 cm is ______.

1.	+ 2 D
2.	- 2 D
3.	50 D
4.	- 5 D

Answer: 1

Question 11

Question: Two lenses having powers +2D and -4D respectively are put together. Power of the combination would be

1.	-2 D
2.	+2 D
3.	-4 D
4.	+4 D

Answer: 1

Question 12

Question: The fluid between the retina and the lens is called _______.

1.	aqueous humour
2.	vitreous humour
3.	aqua
4.	humus

Answer: 2

Question 13

Question: Two thin lenses of power +5D and -2D are put in contact with each other. Focal length of the combination is

1.	+3 m
2.	-3 m
3.	0.33 m
4.	-0.33 m

Answer: 3

Question 14

Question: The least distance of distinct vision for infants is _________.

1.	15 cm
2.	20 cm
3.	25 cm
4.	5 cm

Answer: 4

Question 15

Question: The focal length of a lens whose power is -1.5 D is _______.

1.	-66.66 cm
2.	+ 1.5 m
3.	+ 66.66 cm
4.	-1.5 m

Answer: 1

Light - Reflection and refraction

Question 1

Question: Light is a form of energy produced by a ______.

1.	luminous object
2.	transparent object
3.	non-luminous object
4.	opaque object

Answer: 1

Question 2

Question: An example for non-luminous object is ___________.

1.	a candle
2.	the sun
3.	an electric bulb
4.	the moon

Answer: 4

Question 3

Question: The phenomenon by which the incident light falling on a surface is sent back into the same medium is known as ________.

1.	polarization
2.	reflection
3.	refraction
4.	absorption

Answer: 2

Question 4

Question: When light is incident on a polished surface ___________ reflection takes place.

1.	regular
2.	irregular
3.	diffused
4.	normal

Answer: 1

Question 5

Question: An object becomes invisible when it undergoes ______ reflection.

1.	regular
2.	irregular
3.	diffused
4.	normal

Answer: 1

Question 6

Question: According to the laws of reflection,

1.	i = r
2.	i > r
3.	r > i
4.

Answer: 1

Question 7

Question: The image formed by a plane mirror is always _______.

1.	real and erect
2.	virtual and erect
3.	real and inverted
4.	virtual and inverted

Answer: 2

Question 8

Question: The centre of the sphere of which the spherical mirror forms a part is called ____________.

1.	centre of curvature
2.	focus
3.	pole
4.	vertex

Answer: 1

Question 9

Question: The focus of a concave mirror is ________.

1.	real
2.	virtual
3.	undefined
4.	at the pole

Answer: 2

Question 10

Question: A converging mirror is known as ________.

1.	convex mirror
2.	plane mirror
3.	concave mirror
4.	cylindrical mirror

Answer: 3

Question 11

Question: The relation between the focal length and radius of curvature of a mirror is _______.

1.
2.	R + 2 = f
3.	f = R/2
4.	f = 2 R

Answer: 3

Question 12

Question: Radius of curvature of a concave mirror is always _____ to the mirror.

1.	parallel
2.	perpendicular
3.	inclined at 60o
4.	inclined at 45o

Answer: 2

Question 13

Question: An image formed by a convex mirror is always ________.

1.	virtual, erect and diminished
2.	virtual, real and magnified
3.	real, inverted and diminished
4.	real, erect and magnified

Answer: 1

Question 14

Question: If the image formed by a concave mirror is virtual, erect and magnified, then the object is placed __________.

1.	between the pole of the mirror and the focus
2.	beyond the centre of curvature
3.	at the centre of curvature
4.	at the focus

Answer: 1

Question 15

Question: Dentists use a _____________ to focus light on the tooth of a patient.

1.	concave mirror
2.	convex mirror
3.	plane mirror
4.	cylindrical mirror

Answer: 1

Question 16

Question: An object is placed 1.5 m from a plane mirror. How far is the image from the person?

1.	3 m
2.	1.5 m
3.	2 m
4.	1 m

Answer: 1

Question 17

Question: An object placed 2m from a plane mirror is shifted by 0.5 m away from the mirror. What is the distance between the object and its image?

1.	2 m
2.	1.5 m
3.	5 m
4.	3 m

Answer: 3

Question 18

Question: What is the value of q in the following diagram?

1.	30o
2.	45o
3.	90o
4.	60o

Answer: 4

Question 19

Question: What is the angle between the incident and reflected rays when a ray of light is incident normally on a plane mirror?

1.	90o
2.	45o
3.	180o
4.	0

Answer: 4

Question 20

Question: Name the type of image that can be obtained on a screen.

1.	Virtual
2.	Real
3.	Diverging
4.	Converging

Answer: 2

Question 21

Question: A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror and the angle of incidence is 25^o. What is the angle of reflection?

1.	0
2.	50o
3.	90o
4.	25o

Answer: 4

Question 22

Question: A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror and the angle of reflection is 50^o. Calculate the angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray.

1.	50o
2.	25o
3.	90o
4.	100o

Answer: 4

Question 23

Question: Which of the following is used to make a periscope?

1.	Concave mirror
2.	Convex mirror
3.	Plane mirror
4.	Lens

Answer: 3

Question 24

Question: Which mirror has a wider field of view?

1.	Convex mirror
2.	Concave mirror
3.	Plane mirror
4.	Cylindrical mirror

Answer: 1

Question 25

Question: The focal length of a concave mirror is 15 cm. What is its radius of curvature?

1.	15 cm
2.	30 cm
3.	7.5 cm
4.	45 cm

Answer: 2

Question 26

Question: The focal length of a mirror is 15 cm. Identify the type of mirror.

1.	Concave mirror
2.	Plane mirror
3.	Convex mirror
4.	Cylindrical mirror

Answer: 3

Question 27

Question: A ray of light passing through the _______ retraces its path.

1.	focus
2.	centre of curvature
3.	pole
4.	vertex

Answer: 2

Question 28

Question: When an object is placed at the focus of a concave mirror, the image will be formed at ________.

1.	infinity
2.	focus
3.	centre of curvature
4.	pole

Answer: 1

Question 29

Question: Butter paper is an example for _______ object.

1.	a transparent
2.	a translucent
3.	an opaque
4.	a luminous

Answer: 2

Question 30

Question: An object of size 2.0 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave mirror. The distance of the object from the mirror equals to the radius of curvature. The size of the image will be ______________.

1.	0.5 cm
2.	1.5 cm
3.	1.0 cm
4.	2.0 cm

Answer: 4

Question 31

Question: If an incident ray passes through the centre of curvature of a spherical mirror, the reflected ray will __________________.

1.	pass through the focus
2.	pass through the centre of curvature
3.	pass through the pole
4.	retrace its path

Answer: 4

Heredity and Evolution

Question 1

Question: Alternative forms of a gene are called _____________.

1.	loci
2.	multiples
3.	chromosomes
4.	alleles

Answer: 4

Question 2

Question: Heredity or inheritance of specific traits became clearer due to

1.	Lamarck's theory
2.	Mendel worked on garden peas
3.	Darwinism
4.	Neo-Darwinism

Answer: 2

Question 3

Question: Which of these is homozygous recessive?

1.	Ss
2.	ss
3.	SS
4.	s

Answer: 2

Question 4

Question: What will be the genotypic ratio of the cross between Rr and rr?

1.	1:2:1
2.	3:1
3.	1:1
4.	1:1:1

Answer: 3

Question 5

Question: What will be the genotypic ratio of the cross between Rr and Rr?

1.	1:1
2.	3:1
3.	1:2:1
4.	1:1:1

Answer: 3

Question 6

Question: The offspring resulting from a cross between two pure homozygous recessives would be _______.

1.	50% homozygous recessive and 50% homozygous dominant
2.	75% homozygous recessive and 25% heterozygous dominant
3.	75% homozygous recessive and 25% homozygous dominant
4.	100% homozygous recessive

Answer: 4

Question 7

Question: On what cellular structures are genes in eukaryotes carried?

1.	Endoplasmic reticulum
2.	Nuclear membrane
3.	Chromosomes
4.	Mitochondria

Answer: 3

Question 8

Question: Which of the following sentences is true about the evolutionary process?

1.	There is no real 'progress' in the idea of evolution.
2.	humans are unique, a totally new type of organism.
3.	progress is nature's religion.
4.	Evolution of life forms was rapid in the beginning ages.

Answer: 1

Question 9

Question: Microevolution takes place due to

1.	somatogenic variation
2.	blastogenic variation
3.	continuous variation
4.	Successive variation

Answer: 2

Question 10

Question: In man the chromosome number is 46. How many chromosomes are present in man's muscle cells?

1.	23
2.	46
3.	69
4.	variable

Answer: 2

Question 11

Question: The difference between Homo sapiens and the Homo erectus was ____. .

1.	Homo sapiens originated in Africa while Homo erectus was in Asia
2.	Homo eructus were much smaller in size than homo sapiens.
3.	Homo eructus stayed in Africa while Homo sapiens did not
4.	The size of their brain of Homo eructus was smaller to homo sapiens

Answer: 4

Question 12

Question: The component of a chromosome that controls heredity is ____.

1.	proteins
2.	histones
3.	DNA
4.	RNA

Answer: 3

Question 13

Question: Speciation takes place when variation occurs with

1.	mood changes
2.	death of an organism
3.	changes due to accidents
4.	geographical isolation

Answer: 4

Question 14

Question: Number of chromosomes in a human male is _________.

1.	23
2.	23 pairs
3.	22 pairs + XY
4.	22 pairs

Answer: 3

Question 15

Question: By studying analogous structures we look for ______.

1.	similarities in appearance and function but different in structure
2.	similarities in appearance bur differences if functions
3.	Similarities in organ structure
4.	Similarities in cell make up

Answer: 1

Question 16

Question: __________ was a predecessor of Darwin's and developed the theory of acquired characteristics.

1.	Weismann
2.	Mendel
3.	Malthus
4.	Lamarck

Answer: 4

Question 17

Question: Which of these is not a living fossil?

1.	Archaeopteryx
2.	Duck-billed platypus
3.	Lungfish
4.	Frog

Answer: 1

Question 18

Question: Which of the following are not examples of analogous structures?

1.	Wings of bat and butterfly
2.	Wings of bat and forelimb of cattle
3.	Thorn and spine
4.	Tendril of Lathyrus and tendril of Gloriosa

Answer: 2

Question 19

Question: The scientist who cut off the tails of mice of successive generations to prove Lamarck's theory wrong was _____.

1.	Weismann
2.	Haeckel
3.	Darwin
4.	Wallace

Answer: 1

Question 20

Question: Human being belongs to the species of_____.

1.	Homo erectus
2.	Homo habillis
3.	Homo sapiens
4.	Hominidae

Answer: 3

Question 21

Question: Links between organisms that show branching pattern of evolutionary relationships are shown by_____.

1.	living fossils
2.	comparative embryology
3.	phylogenetic trees
4.	two fossil layerss

Answer: 3

Question 22

Question: Speciation is the evolutionary process by which _____.

1.	a new gene pool is formed
2.	evolutionary paths of species converge
3.	hybrids species form
4.	Shows up differences in physical traits

Answer: 1

Question 23

Question: Non geographic speciation can be found in _____.

1.	parapatric speciation
2.	peripatric speciation
3.	allopatric speciation
4.	sympatric speciation

Answer: 1

Question 24

Question: Evidences of evolutionary relationships is found in ______.

1.	atmosphere
2.	fossils
3.	ocean beds
4.	rocks

Answer: 2

Question 25

Question: In dogs the chromosome number is 78. How many chromosomes are present in the dog sperm?

1.	78
2.	39
3.	cannot determine from this information
4.	variable

Answer: 1

Question 26

Question: Homologous chromosomes which are similar in both the sexes are called ______.

1.	sex chromosomes
2.	autosomes
3.	allosomes
4.	androsomes

Answer: 2

How do organisms reproduce ?

Question 1

Question: The male hormone testesterone is produced by _________.

1.	Leydig cells
2.	Seminiferous tubules
3.	Epididymis
4.	Vas deferens

Answer: 1

Question 2

Question: Male gonads are called _______________.

1.	testes
2.	ovaries
3.	scrotal sacs
4.	sperm duct

Answer: 1

Question 3

Question: The fertilized egg is called ______________.

1.	ovum
2.	blastocyst
3.	diploid cell
4.	zygote

Answer: 4

Question 4

Question: The ultimate stoppage of menstrual cycle is called _______.

1.	puberty
2.	menarche
3.	menopause
4.	old age

Answer: 3

Question 5

Question: The process by which the sperms are produced is known as ____________.

1.	ovulation
2.	spermatogenesis
3.	oogenesis
4.	gestation

Answer: 2

Question 6

Question: The tube that carries the sperms out of the testes is the __________________.

1.	vasa efferentia
2.	vas deferens
3.	oviduct
4.	epididymis

Answer: 2

Question 7

Question: The process by which the sperms are released is called __________________.

1.	spermatogenesis
2.	oogenesis
3.	ovulation
4.	ejaculation

Answer: 4

Question 8

Question: The external genitalia in females is called ____________.

1.	pubis
2.	vagina
3.	vulva
4.	clitoris

Answer: 3

Question 9

Question: Sterilisation in males is called as _____________.

1.	tubectomy
2.	vasectomy
3.	IVF
4.	GIFT

Answer: 2

Question 10

Question: Binary fission is seen in __________________.

1.	plasmodium
2.	hydra
3.	amoeba
4.	mucor

Answer: 3

Question 11

Question: The endosperm nucleus is _______________.

1.	haploid
2.	diploid
3.	triploid
4.	tetraploid

Answer: 3

Question 12

Question: The fertilization of human egg by the sperms takes place in __________________.

1.	ovary
2.	oviduct
3.	vagina
4.	uterus

Answer: 2

Question 13

Question: Pollen tube contains _____________.

1.	one male nucleus
2.	two male nuclei
3.	three male nuclei
4.	four male nuclei

Answer: 2

Question 14

Question: If the pollen is transferred to the stigma of the same flower, it is called __________.

1.	allogamy
2.	autogamy
3.	cross pollination
4.	double fertilization

Answer: 2

Question 15

Question: Pollen grains are produced by ________________.

1.	ovary
2.	filament
3.	stigma
4.	anther

Answer: 4

Question 16

Question: The collective name for sepals is _______________.

1.	androecium
2.	gynoecium
3.	corolla
4.	calyx

Answer: 4

Question 17

Question: The individual units of corolla are called __________.

1.	petals
2.	sepals
3.	stamens
4.	pistils

Answer: 1

Question 18

Question: The attachment of the embryo to the uterus is called ____________________.

1.	gestation
2.	fertilisation
3.	implantation
4.	menstruation

Answer: 3

Question 19

Question: The onset of the reproductive age is called _____________.

1.	menstruation
2.	menarche
3.	menopause
4.	puberty

Answer: 4

Question 20

Question: The first time that the monthly bleeding occurs is called __________________.

1.	maturity
2.	menarche
3.	menopause
4.	puberty

Answer: 2

Question 21

Question: The most important part of the plant for continuation of the life of the species is _____.

1.	stem
2.	root
3.	flower
4.	leaf

Answer: 3

Question 22

Question: The type of vegetative propagation seen in chrysanthemum is ________________.

1.	runner
2.	sucker
3.	stolon
4.	offset

Answer: 2

Question 23

Question: Successfully grafted plants bear the flowers and fruits characteristic of the _______.

1.	scion
2.	stock
3.	either scion or stock
4.	a mixture of scion and stock

Answer: 1

Question 24

Question: Sugarcane is normally grown by ______________.

1.	cutting
2.	grafting
3.	layering
4.	seeds

Answer: 1

Question 25

Question: Unequal daughter cells are produced in _______________.

1.	fragmentation
2.	sporulation
3.	fission
4.	budding

Answer: 4

Question 26

Question: Vegetative propogation in sweet potato is by ___________.

1.	stem
2.	root
3.	leaf
4.	none of the above

Answer: 2

Question 27

Question: Vegetative propogation in Bryophyllum is by ___________.

1.	stem
2.	root
3.	leaf
4.	none of the above

Answer: 3

Question 28

Question: An example of a hermaphrodite is ___________.

1.	frog
2.	fish
3.	earthworm
4.	hydra

Answer: 3

Question 29

Question: Multiple fission is seen in ___________.

1.	yeast
2.	paramoecium
3.	plasmodium
4.	rhizopus

Answer: 3

Question 30

Question: Progesterone is secreted by ________________.

1.	ovarian follicle
2.	Graffian follicle
3.	Corpus luteum
4.	Corpus albicans

Answer: 3

Question 31

Question: The hormone secreted by the pituitary to start the ovulation process is ___________.

1.	FSH
2.	Luteinizing hormone
3.	Oestrogen
4.	Progesterone

Answer: 2

Question 32

Question: Sperms are produced at a temperature that is ________the body temperature.

1.	same as
2.	lower than
3.	higher than
4.	immaterial to

Answer: 2

Question 33

Question: The part of the sperm that contains the lytic enzymes is ____________________.

1.	acrosome
2.	nucleus
3.	mid-piece
4.	tail

Answer: 1

Question 34

Question: The life span of the sperm is ______________.

1.	2 days
2.	1-3 days
3.	1-3 weeks
4.	7 days

Answer: 2

Question 35

Question: The sperms are temporarily stored in ___________.

1.	vas deferens
2.	vas efferens
3.	epididymis
4.	bladder

Answer: 3

Periodic classification of elements

Question (1): The properties of an element in the periodic table depends on its, ________.

1. atomic size 2. atomic mass 3. electronic configuration 4. number of protons

Ans: 3

Question (2): An element has configuration 2, 8, 1. It belongs to, _________.

1. 1 group and 3rd period 2. 3 group and 1st period 3. 1 group and 8th period 4. 17 group and 3rd period

Ans: 1

Question (3): The number of electrons in the valence shell is equal to its ________.

1. atomic mass 2. group number 3. period number 4. atomic volume

Ans: 2

Question (4): The non-metallic element present in the third period other than sulphur and chlorine is _______.

1. oxygen 2. fluorine 3. nitrogen 4. phosphorus

Ans: 4

Question (5): At the end of each period the valence shell is __________.

1. incomplete 2. half filled 3. singly occupied 4. completely filled

Ans: 4

Question (6): The family of elements having seven electrons in the outermost shell is ______.

1. alkali metals 2. alkaline earth metals 3. halogens 4. noble gases

Ans: 3

Question (7): Which of the following factors does not affect the metallic character of an element?

1. Atomic size 2. Ionisation potential 3. Electronegativity 4. Atomic radius

Ans: 3

Question (8): The family of elements to which potassium belongs is _________.

1. alkali metals 2. alkaline earth metals 3. halogens 4. noble gases

Ans: 1

Question (9): The modern periodic table is given by ________

1. Mendeleev 2. Einstein 3. Bohr 4. Mosley

Ans: 4

Question (10): Elements belonging to groups 1 to 17 are called __________.

1. noble gases 2. normal elements 3. transition elements 4. inner transition elements

Ans: 2

Question (11): A liquid non-metal is ___________.

1. phosphorous 2. mercury 3. bromine 4. nitrogen

Ans: 3

Question (12): The first alkali metal is _________.

1. hydrogen 2. lithium 3. sodium 4. francium

Ans: 2

Question (13): A purple coloured solid halogen is ________.

1. chlorine 2. bromine 3. iodine 4. astatine

Ans: 3

Question (14): Lanthanides and actinides are also called ___________.

1. normal elements 2. transition elements 3. noble gases 4. inner transition elements

Ans: 4

Question (15): The family of elements to which calcium belongs is __________.

1. alkali metals 2. alkaline earth metals 3. halogens 4. noble gases

Ans: 2

Question (16): The least reactive element in group 17 is ___________.

1. fluorine 2. chlorine 3. bromine 4. iodine

Ans: 4

Question (17): The valency of chlorine with respect to oxygen is __________.

1. 1 2. 3 3. 5 4. 7

Ans: 4

Question (18): The number of shells in the elements of 3rd period is __________.

1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 0

Ans: 3

Question (19): Four elements along a period have atomic number (11, 13, 16 and 17). The most metallic among these has an atomic number of __________.

1. 11 2. 12 3. 16 4. 17

Ans: 1

Question (20): Six elements A, B, C, D, E and F have the following atomic numbers (A = 12, B = 17, C = 18, D = 7, E = 9 and F = 11). Among these elements, the element, which belongs to the 3rd period and has the highest ionisation potential, is __________.

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. F

Ans: 3

Question (21): A factor that affects the ionisation potential of an element is __________.

1. atomic size 2. electron affinity 3. electro-negativity 4. neutrons

Ans: 1

Question (22): The element, which has the highest electron affinity in the 3rd period is _________.

1. Na 2. Mg 3. Si 4. Cl

Ans: 4

Question (23): The element, which has zero electron affinity in the 3rd period is __________.

1. Al 2. P 3. Ar 4. S

Ans: 3

Question (24): The statement that is not true about electron affinity is

1. It causes energy to be released 2. It causes energy to be absorbed 3. It is expressed in electron volts 4. It involves formation of an anion

Ans: 2

Question (25): Down a group, the electron affinity __________.

1. increases 2. decreases 3. remains same 4. increases and then decreases

Ans: 2

Carbon and its compounds

Question 1

Question: Which of the following statements is not applicable to cabon compounds?

1.	They have low melting and boiling points.
2.	They are ionic in nature.
3.	They form homologous series.
4.	They are generally soluble in organic solvents.

Answer: 2

Question 2

Question: Which of the following properties is not true regarding organic compounds.

1.	They are generally covalent compounds.
2.	Show isomerism.
3.	Compounds have high melting and boiling points.
4.	Generally insoluble in water.

Answer: 3

Question 3

Question: The property of catenation is more marked in case of _________.

1.	silicon
2.	hydrogen
3.	oxygen
4.	carbon

Answer: 4

Question 4

Question: The open chain aliphatic hydrocarbon with molecular formula C₉H₁₆ is _________.

1.	an alkane
2.	an alkene
3.	an alkyne
4.	acyclic

Answer: 3

Question 5

Question: The double bond between the two carbon atoms in the C₂H₄ molecule indicates

1.	Two pairs of mobile electrons
2.	Two pairs of shared electrons
3.	Two pairs of unpaired electrons
4.	Two pairs of lone electrons

Answer: 2

Question 6

Question: Alkenes and alkynes are _________.

1.	saturated aliphatic hydrocarbons
2.	unsaturated aliphatic hydrocarbons
3.	unsaturated aromatic hydrocarbons
4.	cyclic hydrocarbons

Answer: 2

Question 7

Question: Which of the following compounds have a ring-carbon chain structure?

1.	Ethane
2.	Ethene
3.	Ethyne
4.	Benzene

Answer: 4

Question 8

Question: The structural formula of 2-butene is _________.

1.	CH3 - CH = C = CH2
2.
3.	CH3 = CH - CH2 - CH3
4.	CH3 - CH = CH - CH3

Answer: 4

Question 9

Question: IUPAC name of

is _________.

1.	propanol
2.	butanol
3.	2-butanol
4.	isobutanol

Answer: 3

Question 10

Question: Maximum number of bonds between two atoms of a covalent bond can be

1.	Four
2.	Two
3.	Three
4.	One

Answer: 3

Question 11

Question: The correct formula of ethanol is ________.

1.	C2H6OH
2.	C2H5OH
3.	CH3OH
4.	CH3CH2CH2OH

Answer: 2

Question 12

Question: The functional group of ketones is _______________.

1.	COOH
2.	CH=O
3.	>C=O
4.	O

Answer: 3

Question 13

Question: The IUPAC name of simplest alcohol is _____.

1.	methanol
2.	ethanol
3.	ethyl alcohol
4.	methyl alcohol

Answer: 1

Question 14

Question: In ethane (C₂H₆) each carbon atom is bonded to

1.	Six atoms
2.	Three atoms
3.	Two atoms
4.	Four atoms

Answer: 2

Question 15

Question: Which of the following does not contain carbonyl group?

1.	Ethanal
2.	Ethanol
3.	Methanal
4.	Propanone

Answer: 2

Question 16

Question: The term 'Isomerism' applies to organic compounds with same

1.	molecular formula but different structural formulae.
2.	molecular formula but different empirical formulae.
3.	empirical formula but different molecular formulae.
4.	structural formulae but different molecular formula.

Answer: 2

Question 17

Question: A hydrocarbon compound burns with a non-luminous flame. Which hydrocarbon type does it indicate?

1.	Alicyclic hydrocarbon
2.	Aromatic hydrocarbon
3.	Unsaturated hydrocarbon
4.	Acyclic hydrocarbon.

Answer: 2

Question 18

Question: The chlorination of methane, is an example of _________.

1.	addition reaction
2.	reduction reaction
3.	elimination reaction
4.	substitution chain reaction

Answer: 4

Question 19

Question: Organic compounds are generally soluble in

1.	Polar solvents
2.	Protic solvents
3.	Immiscible solvents
4.	Non-polar solvents

Answer: 4

Question 20

Question: On heating ethyl alcohol with alumina at 350^oC we get _________.

1.	ethene
2.	diethyl ether
3.	acetaldehyde
4.	ethane

Answer: 1

Question 21

Question: The polar end of the sodium stearate soap molecule C₁₇H₃₅COONa contains______.

1.	CH3(CH2)16- chain
2.	Na
3.	C17
4.	-COO-Na+ group

Answer: 4

Question 22

Question: The non-polar hydrocarbon group of a soap molecule _________.

1.	repels water but attracts oil and dirt particles
2.	does not attract oil or dirt
3.	faces outward towards the water
4.	has a -COO-Na+ group

Answer: 1

Question 23

Question: Micelles are_________.

1.	soap molecules in clean water
2.	drops of oil or dirt that surrounds the molecule
3.	a tadpole shaped fatty acid
4.	cluster of soap molecules surrounding the dirt particle

Answer: 4

Question 24

Question: 1-propanol and 2-propanol are

1.	chain isomers
2.	position isomers
3.	functional isomers
4.	homologues

Answer: 2

Question 25

Question: Diamond is not conducting electricity because

1.	Its structure is very compact.
2.	There are only carbon atoms present.
3.	There are no free electrons.
4.	It is crystalline in nature.

Answer: 3